Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 24.06.2025 03:18
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
CrowdStrike Swings to Loss as Expenses From Last Summer’s Outage Persist - WSJ
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why some allergy experts want this popular group of drugs to go away - Deseret News
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.